Calculations with ISPIN=1 after calculation with ISPIN=2 showed magnetization = 0
Posted: Thu Feb 21, 2013 9:35 am
Dear all,
assume one has performed (for one configuration of ions) a calculation with ISPIN = 2 (the system has an odd number of electrons) and it has shown that magnetization=0.
Now assume one wants to do a MD simulation, starting with the above configuration.
Is it valid to perform this MD run with ISPIN = 1 (for performance reasons), since we already know that the system is not magnetized. Or may it happen that the system shows spin polarization for other configurations than the one tested?
Best,
Brock
<span class='smallblacktext'>[ Edited ]</span>
assume one has performed (for one configuration of ions) a calculation with ISPIN = 2 (the system has an odd number of electrons) and it has shown that magnetization=0.
Now assume one wants to do a MD simulation, starting with the above configuration.
Is it valid to perform this MD run with ISPIN = 1 (for performance reasons), since we already know that the system is not magnetized. Or may it happen that the system shows spin polarization for other configurations than the one tested?
Best,
Brock
<span class='smallblacktext'>[ Edited ]</span>